The Word with God

I was taught that "the Word" is another name for Jesus. That Jesus existed as "the Word" before he was born. That John 1:1 proves Jesus is God himself.

But something didn't sit right. If "the Word" is Jesus, why does John 1:1 say "the Word was with God" AND "the Word was God"? How can Jesus be with God and be God at the same time? Why did John never use "the Word" to refer to Jesus anywhere else in his gospel? And if Jesus is God, why did John write "no one has seen God" after describing how people saw and touched Jesus?

I started digging deeper. I looked at how the Greek word "logos" is actually used in Scripture. I examined how the apostles understood "the Word of God." I traced John's usage throughout his gospel. What I discovered challenged everything I had been taught.

This article shares what I found. I'll present the evidence objectively. The linguistic data, the biblical usage patterns, the verse by verse analysis of John 1. Then readers can decide for themselves whether "the Word" is Jesus himself or something else entirely.

If this confusion sounds familiar, keep reading. The solution may be simpler than expected.

The Meaning of "The Word"

Before examining John 1, we need to understand what the Greek word "logos" (translated as "the Word") actually means.

"Logos" has a very wide range of meanings that fall into two basic categories:

1. The mind and its products: reason, logic (English "logic" comes from "logos")
2. Expression of that reason: word, saying, command, plan, promise

The Bible itself demonstrates this wide range. "Logos" appears over 300 times in the Greek New Testament, but is only translated as "word" about 175 times in the King James Version and 125 times in the NIV. The same Greek word is also translated as:

account, appearance, book, command, conversation, eloquence, flattery, grievance, instruction, matter, message, ministry, news, proposal, question, reason, reply, report, rule, rumor, saying, sentence, speech, story, teaching, testimony, truth, and more.

This matters: Whichever meaning we assign to "the word" in John 1 drastically changes the message.

"The Word" According to Strong's Concordance

"The Word" According to the BDAG Greek-English Lexicon

The BDAG lexicon (the standard scholarly Greek-English dictionary) shows how "logos" is translated in various New Testament passages:

"Logos" is NOT typically used to designate a person, but rather ideas, statements, plans, commands, or messages.

How Other Apostles Define "The Word of God"

John was not the only apostle who testified about Jesus fulfilling "the Word of God." Let's see how Peter, Stephen, and Paul described the same concept.

Peter: "The Word" as God's Definite Plan

Peter identifies "the Word of God" as God's definite plan and foreknowledge. Jesus was:

• A man whom God worked through
• Delivered according to God's plan
• Raised by God

Stephen: "The Word" as God's Promise

Stephen identifies "the Word of God" as God's promise announced by prophets and fulfilled in Jesus, the Righteous One.

Paul: "The Word" as God's Promise Fulfilled

Paul also writes to Titus:

Paul identifies "the Word of God" as God's promise that was fulfilled when God raised Jesus and made salvation available.

Peter (2 Peter): "The Word" as God's Promise About Creation and Future

Peter uses "the word of God" and "His promise" interchangeably. The same word that created the heavens and earth (God's command) is the same promise that will bring future judgment and new creation.

Apostolic Consensus

Notice the pattern: The early apostles consistently understood "the Word of God" as God's plan or promise about salvation through Jesus, not as Jesus himself being a pre-existent divine "Word" entity.

How John Uses "The Word" in His Gospel

Having seen how the other apostles consistently used "the Word of God" to mean God's plan or promise, let's examine whether John's usage aligns with theirs.

If John intended "the Word" in John 1 to mean "Jesus," we would expect him to use "the word" (ho logos) consistently as a title for Jesus throughout his gospel. Let's examine how John actually uses this exact Greek phrase:

John Uses "The Word" for Sayings and Teachings

John Uses "The Word" for Prophecies

John Uses "The Word" for God's Message and Truth

How John Defines "The Word"

John NEVER uses "the word" (ho logos) to directly refer to Jesus as a person. Instead, John consistently distinguishes between:

• Jesus (the person)
• The word (Jesus's teachings, prophecies about him, or God's truth)

For example:

Notice: Jesus spoke the word. The disciples believed the word that Jesus spoke. These are distinct concepts.

John's Usage Aligns with Other Apostles

Based on John's consistent usage throughout his gospel, "the Word" is not a person, but rather:

• God's plan, promise, or purpose
• Teachings and prophecies
• God's truth revealed through Scripture

This understanding perfectly aligns with:

• Strong's Concordance and standard Greek lexicons
• How Peter, Stephen, and Paul used "the Word of God"
• John's stated purpose: to testify that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God

With this foundation established, we can now examine John 1 with proper context.

The Overall Message of John 1

Some claim John wrote:

• A mysterious riddle ("Guess what 'the word' is!")
• Purely symbolic or poetic text (doesn't need to make literal sense)
• A complex theological puzzle requiring years of study to understand

But John himself explains his purpose:

A witness or testimony should be clear and understandable, not overcomplicated, confusing, or mysterious.

John explicitly states his goal:

John wants readers to believe Jesus is the Christ (Messiah) and the Son of God. NOT that Jesus is God himself or a pre-existent divine "Word" entity.

John's gospel includes multiple witnesses testifying about Jesus:

• John the Baptist: "Behold the Lamb of God" (John 1:29,36)
• John the Baptist: "This is the Son of God" (John 1:34)
• Andrew: "We have found the Messiah" (John 1:41)
• Nathanael: "You are the Son of God; you are the King of Israel" (John 1:49)

Note: If John was testifying about the Trinity in chapter 1, why did he fail to mention the Holy Spirit in his introduction?

Let's now examine John 1 verse by verse.

If "The Word" = Jesus

If we read "the Word" (logos) as "Jesus," John 1 becomes confusing and contradictory:

Problems with this reading:

• Jesus was with God AND was God? (Contradiction in v1)
• People saw Jesus, but "no one has seen God"? (Contradiction in v18)
• Jesus created all things, but the Father is the creator? (Inconsistent with rest of Scripture)
• Jesus declared himself? (Makes no sense in v18)
• "Only begotten of the Father" but also IS the Father? (Contradiction in v14)

Even many Trinitarians admit this direct substitution doesn't work. They argue it requires years of theological study to understand the "mystery" of the Trinity.

If "The Word" = God's Plan

John more likely intended this message (paraphrased with "Word" = God's plan/promise):

This interpretation aligns with Paul's summary:

Analyzing John 1

John 1:1 - In the Beginning Was the Word

Key Observations

1. John uses the definite article three times: "THE Word" (HO LOGOS) - He's referring to a specific word, not just any word
2. "Logos" has many possible meanings - We've already seen it can mean plan, promise, command, teaching, prophecy (see What Does "The Word" Mean?)
3. John refers to God twice in different grammatical forms:
   • "WITH God" (PROS THEON) - with preposition + accusative case
   • "God" (THEOS) - without article + nominative case

Translation Controversies

Jehovah's Witness interpretation:

This reading suggests two different gods, which contradicts monotheism.

New English Bible:

This suggests "the word" shared the same attribute as God (eternal existence from the beginning).

The Apparent Paradox

Why did John write both "the Word was with God" AND "the Word was God"?

The problem: "X was with Y" implies X ≠ Y, but "X was Y" implies X = Y.

However, as Dr. Dale Tuggy notes:

Resolving the Paradox

The Greek word "theos" can mean:

• God Almighty (the Father)
• Divine or a god/important person

Scholar Murry J. Harris suggests:

Which reading makes more sense?

1. "The Word was with the Father, and the Word was the Father" ❌ (Contradiction)
2. "The Word was with the Father, and the Word was divine" ✅ (Consistent)

What Makes "The Word" Divine?

To Jewish readers, "the Word of the LORD" meant God's command:

God's plan/command is divine because it originates from God and carries his authority.

Understanding "Pros" (With)

The Greek preposition "pros" is translated "with" in most English versions:

This translation works perfectly when "the Word" = God's plan:

God's plan existed with God (in God's mind and purpose) from the beginning. This is exactly how Peter describes it: "the definite plan and foreknowledge of God" (Acts 2:23). A plan exists with the one who makes it.

Additional nuance: The preposition "pros" can carry meanings like:

• "toward" (direction)
• "for the benefit of" (purpose)
• "in the presence of" (proximity)

So "the plan was pros God" could mean:

• The plan was with God (standard reading) ✅
• The plan was for God's benefit/purpose ✅
• The plan was in the presence of God ✅

All three nuances align with understanding "the Word" as God's plan.

The "Qualitative Theos" Argument

Some scholars argue that the anarthrous "theos" (without the article) in John 1:1c is qualitative, meaning "the Word possesses the nature or quality of deity" rather than being "a god" or merely "divine."

Response:

1. "Qualitative" still means "god-like" or "divine": Even if we accept the qualitative reading, it doesn't mean "the Word is God the Father." It means the Word has divine quality or characteristics. This actually supports our interpretation. God's plan/word is divine in nature because it originates from God and carries his authority.
2. The question remains: What has divine quality?: The debate isn't whether "the Word" is divine, but rather what "the Word" refers to. Is it:
   • A pre-existent divine person (Jesus)? OR
   • God's divine plan/promise/command?
3. Context determines meaning: John's consistent use of "logos" throughout his Gospel (teachings, prophecies, sayings - never as a title for Jesus) indicates "the Word" means God's message/plan, not a divine person.
4. Jewish precedent: To Jewish readers familiar with the Old Testament, "the word of the LORD" was already understood as divine because it comes from God and accomplishes God's purposes (Isaiah 55:11, Psalm 33:6).

Conclusion: Whether we translate "theos" as "divine" or "had the quality of deity," both readings support the same conclusion. God's word/plan is divine because it originates from God, not because "the Word" is a pre-existent divine Jesus.

Alternative Reading

This reading is:

• Consistent (no contradiction - a plan can be with someone and be divine in nature)
• Aligned with Jewish understanding of "word" as God's command (Psalm 33:6,9)
• Supported by apostolic testimony (Peter, Stephen, Paul all define "the Word" as God's plan - see How Other Apostles Define "The Word")
• Preserves strict monotheism (see below)

This Reading Preserves Strict Monotheism

The interpretation "the Word = God's plan" is consistent with biblical monotheism, while "the Word = divine Jesus" creates theological difficulties.

The Shema (Israel's foundational confession of faith):

Jesus himself affirmed this as the first and greatest commandment:

The problem with "the Word = divine Jesus":

If "the Word was God" means Jesus is God Almighty, and the Father is God Almighty, then either:

1. Jesus = the Father (contradicts "the Word was with God")
2. Jesus ≠ the Father, but both are God (contradicts "the LORD is one")

The solution with "the Word = God's plan":

• God (the Father) is one
• God's word/plan is divine (because it comes from God)
• No contradiction with monotheism

For detailed discussion of biblical monotheism and the Shema, see The Shema: Hear O Israel

Key insight: Understanding "the Word" as God's divine plan preserves the strict monotheism that Jesus himself affirmed.

John 1:2 - This Was in the Beginning

Translation Issue: "He" or "It"?

The Greek word "houtos" can mean either "he," "it," or "this," depending on context. Many translators assume "the Word" = Jesus (a person), so they translate "houtos" as "he." This is circular reasoning.

Other translations:

• KJV/ASV: "The same was in the beginning with God"
• NET: "The Word was with God in the beginning"
• REV: "This word was in the beginning with God"

Why the Repetition?

Original Greek had no punctuation marks. Verse 2 likely serves as a transition connecting verse 1 (the origin and nature of God's plan) with verse 3 (how God used his plan to create).

This shifts the subject from "the word" (God's plan) back to God (the Creator). John is testifying about the God of Israel who created us through His word (Genesis 1, Psalm 33:6, Isaiah 55:11), not promoting Greek philosophical speculation about impersonal cosmic principles (Stoics) or intermediary beings (Philo). John strategically used "Logos" as a bridge term familiar to Greek-educated readers, then transformed it with Jewish scriptural meaning - similar to Paul's approach at Mars Hill (Acts 17:22-34) (Bible-Researcher).

John 1:3 - All Things Were Made Through It

or

or

"Through Him" or "Through It"?

Whether "him" (God) or "it" (the word/plan), both readings point to the same truth: God created according to his word (command/plan).

Old Testament parallel:

In Genesis 1, God created by speaking: "Let there be..." and it was created.

Peter's understanding (2 Peter 3:5-9,13):

Peter equates "the word" with God's promise. God created by his word, and will fulfill his future promises by the same word.

Key insight: "The word" = God's command/plan, not a pre-existent Jesus.

John 1:4-5 - In Him Was Life

Parallels with Genesis 1

John echoes Genesis: "in the beginning," "light," and "darkness."

What Are "The Life" and "The Light"?

John introduces two metaphors:

• "The life" = eternal salvation
• "The light" = the gospel/truth that exposes darkness (deception)

These are NOT titles for Jesus himself, but rather describe the result of God's plan:

• God's plan includes the solution for eternal life
• This truth shines into a world of darkness (lies/deception)

Key point: God did not create Jesus or himself "in the beginning." Rather, God's creation and plan (the word) provided the solution for life and light, which is why John mentions them here.

John 1:6-9 - John's Witness to the Light

Was John the Baptist Testifying About Jesus or the Gospel?

Some translations add words that aren't in the original Greek:

The italicized words create the impression that "the light" = Jesus himself.

However, in context (John 1:4), "the life" = eternal salvation, which is also the Glory of God. This is the purpose why God created life (Psalm 86:9-10, 148:1-12; Ephesians 1:3-6).

Why Clarify That John the Baptist Was Not the Light?

People easily idolize messengers. John the Apostle makes clear: Don't idolize John the Baptist. He was only "bearing witness of the light" (the gospel). He was not:

• The means to salvation ("the life")
• The glory itself ("the light")

The gospel (the light) reveals God's glory and points to salvation, which was coming into the world through Jesus.

John 1:10-13 - Rejection and Acceptance

Who Is "He" in This Passage?

• NOT John the Baptist - "he was not that light" (John 1:8)
• God? - If so, how could God be "born of God" (v13)? This creates a contradiction.
• Jesus? - This makes sense, BUT we need to explain "the world was made by him" when God (not Jesus) is the Creator.

What Does "The World Was Made By Him" Mean?

Note the order:

1. "He was in the world" (present in it)
2. "The world was made by him" (came after)

If John meant physical creation, this makes no sense:

• Jesus/God couldn't be "in the world" before the world existed
• This would be redundant (already stated in v3)

Better understanding: "The world" here = the people of the world.

"The world was made by him" likely means:

• Those who accept him are spiritually reborn (made into God's children)
• The believing world is "made" through Jesus's work

The Authority (Name) to Become Sons of God

"Sons of God" are made when people believe on his name (authority), which is:

• Jesus "was born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God"
• Jesus was NOT an accident (Mary's out-of-wedlock affair)
• Jesus was born according to God's will/plan

This ties back to "the Word" (God's plan) becoming flesh.

John 1:14 - The Word Became Flesh

Does This Mean Incarnation?

Some claim this proves Jesus was God incarnate - that God became human.

Alternative understanding: "The word became flesh" = God's promised plan materialized when Jesus was born.

• God's plan/promise (the word) became reality in human form
• God kept his promise through the prophets
• This event glorified God (showed his faithfulness)

"We beheld his glory" = We saw God's glory displayed in the only begotten Son, full of grace and truth.

Key point: The Word (plan) becoming flesh doesn't require Jesus to be God. It means God's plan was fulfilled in Jesus's birth.

John 1:15 - He Was Before Me

Does "Before Me" Mean Pre-existence?

John the Baptist was older than Jesus, so "he was before me" seems puzzling. Does it mean Jesus pre-existed?

NO. The Greek word "protos" (translated "before") can also mean:

• First in rank (chief, leader, superior)
• Examples: Matthew 20:27, 22:38; Mark 6:21, 10:44; Luke 11:26

Better translation: "He ranks above me" or "He is greater than me."

John the Baptist acknowledged Jesus's superior authority and importance, not that Jesus existed before him chronologically.

John 1:16-17 - Fullness of Grace

What Is "Fullness"?

Greek "pléróma" (Strong's) = fullness, filling up, fulfillment, completion

Scholars interpret this differently:

1. Jesus was "full of God" (supports deity claims) ❌ - John is not discussing Jesus's essence here
2. Jesus "fulfilled" Christ prophecies ❌ - Already said in v14
3. Jesus brought the fullness of God's grace ✅ - Contrasted with "law through Moses"

Best interpretation: Jesus completed/supplied/fulfilled God's grace. Grace and truth came through Jesus Christ, whereas the law came through Moses.

This connects to "the word became flesh" - God's plan to bring grace was fulfilled in Jesus.

John 1:18 - No One Has Seen God

This section provides detailed analysis of how modern translations add words to John 1:18 that aren't in the original Greek.

"who is himself God" is text added by translators - NOT in the original manuscript.

Compare with older translation:

Direct Translation from Greek

The Interlinear Bible reads:

The Greek Word "Theos"

The Greek word "theos" can mean:

• God Almighty (capital "G")
• A god or important person (small "g")

Depending on the translator's theological view, the same Greek text is translated differently.

The Contradiction

If John truly meant "God" (capital "G"), it creates a contradiction:

• John 1:14 - Jesus was SEEN
• John 1:18 - No one has SEEN God

What About Jesus's Teachings?

If the "only begotten Son" made God known, did Jesus teach about the triune God (Father, Son, Holy Spirit)?

NO. Jesus consistently taught that the Father alone is God:

• John 17:3; 20:17
• Mark 12:29; 15:34
• Matthew 4:3-10; 27:46
• Revelation 16:5-7

Examples:

• Samaritan woman (John 4:1-42) - Jesus said he was the Messiah, told her to worship the Father, reinforcing belief in one God
• Disciples (Matt 16:17-20) - Jesus taught he was the Messiah, reinforced that God the Father revealed this
• Blind man (John 9:35-38) - Jesus taught he was the Messiah, not God
• Rich young ruler (Mark 10:17-18) - Jesus corrected him: "Only God is good" (implying Jesus is not God)

The Key Point

Regardless of translation, the verse says "he has made Him known" or "he has declared Him."

This describes two distinct persons:

• The Son (who declares/makes known)
• The Father/God (who is declared/made known)

Problem: If Jesus IS God, then how did God make himself known as someone else? This makes no sense.

Solution: The Son (Jesus) declared/explained the Father (God). They are distinct persons.

"The Word of God" in Revelation 19

John wrote in the book of Revelations:

Is This Jesus?

Many scholars agree this likely describes Jesus based on similar prophecies about Jesus. Some argue "the name" means "identity," proving Jesus IS "the Word of God."

1. Authorship unclear - No evidence "John of Patmos" is "John the apostle"
2. Different genres - Gospel of John = testimony; Revelation = prophecy (different language/context)
3. Contradiction - "A name no one knows but himself" (v12), yet "the name... is The Word of God" (v13)? If it's unknowable, how can John reveal it?

Revelation 19:16 clarifies what "name" means: "King of kings and Lord of lords" - This is authority/title, not a personal designation like "John" or "Jesus."

If the first (v12) and third (v16) instances of "name" mean authority, then the second instance (v13) should too:

What Does This Mean?

Analogy: A police officer arresting someone acts on government authority. Without an order, the officer has no right to arrest. Similarly, Jesus acts by the Word of God (God's command/authority) to lead God's armies.

Why this matters:

• Jesus comes BY God's authority, not AS God
• Jesus acts on God's instructions (the Word/command of God)
• God's armies follow Jesus because he carries God's authority

Implication: We don't need to fear a rogue agent. Jesus will return as God's obedient agent, acting according to the instructions of a just God.

Key insight: This supports our earlier finding - "The Word of God" = God's command/plan, and Jesus acts according to it.

Is the Word another name for Jesus?

Based on comprehensive biblical evidence, "The Word of God" is God's plan, promise, and command - NOT Jesus himself as a pre-existent divine entity.

1. Linguistic Evidence

• "Logos" means idea, plan, statement, command, promise, teaching
• NOT typically used to designate a person
• Appears 300+ times in NT, translated many different ways depending on context

2. How Biblical Authors Use "The Word"

3. John 1 Analysis

When we read "the word" as "God's plan/promise":

• No contradictions ("with God" yet "divine")
• Consistent with Genesis 1 (God created by speaking/commanding)
• Aligns with John's purpose (testify that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God)
• "Word became flesh" = God's promise materialized when Jesus was born

4. Revelation 19

• Jesus acts BY the Word of God (God's authority/command)
• NOT AS the Word of God (not claiming to be God)

Common Objections

"What About Colossians 1 and Hebrews 1?"

Some cite Colossians 1:15-17 and Hebrews 1:2-3 as proof that Jesus created all things, arguing this supports the view that "the Word" in John 1 is Jesus himself as a pre-existent divine creator.

However, both passages use language indicating Jesus as God's agent or instrument, not as the independent creator:

• Colossians 1:16: "all things were created through him and for him"
• Hebrews 1:2: "through whom also he created the world"

The Greek preposition "dia" (through) indicates agency, not direct action. God created through Jesus in the sense that all creation serves God's plan, which centers on Jesus. All things were made according to God's plan (the Word), which was fulfilled in Jesus.

Additionally, these passages must be read in their full context. Colossians 1 describes Jesus as "the image of the invisible God" and "the firstborn of all creation." An image is not the same as the origin. Adam was also created in God's image, yet Adam was not the creator.

For detailed analysis of these passages and their context, see Is Jesus the Creator?

"What About 'Before Abraham Was, I Am'?"

John 8:58 is frequently cited as proof of Jesus's pre-existence and deity:

At first glance, this seems to claim Jesus existed before Abraham. However, several factors challenge this interpretation:

Context matters: The conversation is about Abraham seeing Jesus's day and rejoicing (John 8:56). Jesus is speaking about his role and position in God's plan, not his literal pre-existence. God's plan for the Messiah existed before Abraham. Jesus, as the fulfillment of that eternal plan, can speak about existing in God's purpose before Abraham lived.

Greek grammar: "I am" (Greek: "ego eimi") is a common phrase meaning "I am he" or "it is I." The blind man in John 9:9 uses the exact same Greek phrase ("ego eimi") to identify himself. He wasn't claiming to be God.

Connection to Exodus 3:14: While some connect "I am" to God's self-identification in Exodus 3:14, the Greek Septuagint uses a different construction there ("ego eimi ho on" = I am the being one), not simply "ego eimi."

Consistency with John's Gospel: Throughout John's Gospel, "the Word" refers to God's plan and message, not to Jesus as a pre-existent divine person. John 8:58 must be interpreted consistently with this pattern.

For detailed analysis of this passage and its context, see Did Jesus Claim to Be "I AM"?

What This Means for You

You've seen the evidence. The linguistic data, apostolic testimony, and verse-by-verse analysis all point to the same conclusion: "The Word" means God's plan, promise, and command. Not Jesus as a pre-existent divine entity.

So what now?

Read John 1 again, replacing "the Word" with "God's plan." Watch the contradictions disappear. See how it aligns with Genesis 1, where God created by speaking. Notice how it fits John's stated purpose: that you may believe Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God.

Recognize what this reveals about God's character. He's faithful. He promised salvation through the prophets and kept that promise in Jesus. The Word became flesh when Jesus was born according to God's plan. God didn't become His Own son. He sent his Son to fulfill his eternal purpose.

Understand Jesus's role more clearly. Jesus fulfills God's plan; he doesn't replace God. He perfectly obeys and represents God's will, acting by God's authority. This makes his obedience and sacrifice even more profound.

The Word (God's promise) was fulfilled in Jesus. This is Scripture's consistent testimony from Genesis through Revelation.

John didn't write a riddle. He wrote "that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name" (John 20:31).

Will you let Scripture define "the Word," or hold onto traditions that create contradictions?