John 1:18

"who is himself God" is text added by translators which was not part of the original manuscript. Compare, for example, with the KJV, which is a much older translation, and refer to the Interlinear Bible.

What causes the confusion is that the Greek word "theos" could either mean

• God Almighty (capital letter "G") or
• a god or important person (small letter "g")

Therefore, depending on the translator's view, the same Greek scripture is translated differently.

If John truly meant God (with a capital letter "G"), it could appear contradictory to John 1:14, which states "We have seen his glory" while John 1:18 states "No one has ever seen God".

In fact, one could observe that if the "only begotten Son" declared God or made Him known, then the consistent teaching would be expected to emphasize the triune nature of God composed of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. However, the recorded teachings show Jesus repeatedly referring to the Father alone as God. (John 17:3; 20:17; Mark 12:29; 15:34; Matthew 4:3-10; 27:46; Revelation 16:5-7)

For example:

• Jesus could have taught the Samaritan woman (John 4:1-42) about the triune God composed of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit and that she should worship him as God, but instead he told her that he was the Messiah (John 4:26) instead of God. In fact, he even told her that she should worship the Father (John 4:23), which would have reinforced her belief that there was only one God that should be worshipped.
• When Jesus taught his disciples that he was the Messiah (Matthew 16:17-20) instead of God and also reinforced Peter's belief that it was God the Father in heaven who revealed this knowledge to him.
• When Jesus healed a blind man, he only taught him that he was the Messiah (John 9:35-38) instead of God.
• When the young rich ruler approached Jesus and called him Good Master, Jesus corrected him and told him only God was good, which implies he is not God. (Mark 10:17-18)